Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 07:21
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
China-US Deal Didn’t Address Some Rare Earths Controls: Reuters - Bloomberg.com
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
In what ways Indian parents are destroying their children's life?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
I see lots of pictures of women who have huge clits are they real or what?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.